Hi,
Okay, let's start by backing up a bit--I'm somewhat confused that you got two very different p-values for 'different groups'. Can you start by telling us exactly what you counted/measured/are trying to graph? This will help me explain things to you.
Let's start with statistical hypotheses. The good news is, for t-tests they're pretty simple. The null hypothesis is usually that there is no difference between the two groups, and the alternative hypothesis is that there IS a difference between the two groups. Simple, right?
Once you have your hypotheses, it's a bit easier to define a type I and a type II error. Type I error is the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis even if it is true. So, in this case, it is the probability of saying that there IS a difference, even though there IS NOT a difference. Type II error is the probability of failing to reject the null hypothesis even though it is false. So, in this case, it is the probability of NOT FINDING a difference even though there REALLY IS a difference.
What do I mean by 'really is/is not' a difference? Here we need to back up a bit. Let's say you're comparing the bacterial colonies that result from washing a cutting board with a disinfectant to washing it with just water. If you did this experiment an infinite number of times, you would get the 'true' result. Or, to put it another way, if you measured the height of every single man and every single woman on earth, you would be able to measure the exact average difference in height between men and women. But, it's not practical to repeat an experiment infinity times or to measure every single person. So, we take a SAMPLE of all of the men and women on the planet, preferably randomly (though you will realize right away that 'random' can be very hard to actually achieve!).
Let's take the men and women example for a moment. We know that men are taller, on average, than women--this is the REAL result, what we are trying to estimate with our sample. Let's hypothetically say that the real difference in height is 4 inches. Now, let's say we take a random sample of 5 men and 5 women. Maybe, just by chance, you got a couple of really short men and a couple of really tall women in there, and when you do the t-test, it is not significant at the usual cut-off of 0.05. This means you have committed a type II error--you say there is no difference even though there is! On the other hand, if we pretend for a moment that men and women have the same height, we could also randomly just get some tall men and some short women in our sample...and then we would say there is a difference, even though there isn't--a type I error. The probability of a type-1 error is also your p-value.
So, how can you reduce error? Well, you can start by having a LARGE sample. If you measured 500 men and 500 women instead of 5 men and 5 women, randomly selecting one or two short men wouldn't make much of a difference, would it? It would also help if the difference between men and women were very large--let's say a foot instead of four inches. Of course, you cannot change this difference--but the smaller the difference you expect, the larger your sample should be.
Okay, back to random chance. Let's go back to our sample of 5 men and 5 women. If you took samples of 5 men and 5 women over and over and over, you would find that a certain percentage of the samples showed that men were shorter than women, a certain percentage of these samples would show that there was no difference in height, and a certain percentage would show that men were taller than women. If there was really no difference in height, these percentages would be different from the percentages you would get if there were a difference, right? For example, if there were really no difference in height, we might expect a 25% chance of a result that men were shorter than women, a 50% chance of a result that there was no difference, and a 25% chance of a result that men were taller than women. On the other hand, if there was a 5-inch difference, let's say we might get the result that men were shorter than women only 5% of the time now, a no-difference result 30% of the time, and the other 65% of the time that there is a difference (note: I am just making these numbers up, I didn't look up the actual probabilities!). Remember, we're talking about the results of many, many samples--as if you were to roll a six-sided die many times, you would expect a 1/6 chance of getting a 1.
What statistics does is compare your result from your sample to the hypothetical distribution of samples under the null hypothesis. As long as there is variation in the trait you are measuring, there will always be a random chance of getting an 'extreme' sample even if there is no difference. This is a type I error--the probability of getting a 'significant' result even if there is no difference, or your p-value. It may get very, very small: 0.00000000001, but it will never, ever be zero. Even if there were no difference in height between men and women, there would always be a very, very small probability that you randomly chose the women's basketball team and the men's horse jockey team to sample height from.
As I said before, scientists usually use a 5% chance of a type I error as a cut-off, but some people do use different cut-offs. It is entirely arbitrary that we have decided as a group to use a 5% chance; we could just as easily use a 10% chance or a 2.3456% chance. But, unless you have a good reason for using something else, you should probably go ahead and use what we call an alpha-value (more jargon, I know, I'm sorry) of 0.05 as a cut-off.
I am going to stop this here and address your questions about the standard deviation in another post, because this one is getting really, really long. I hope I have not just confused you further...with statistics, I really like to be able to draw pictures to help you understand things, but on the board I cannot

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